Arithmetic and geometric means
In the following I'll consider sets of positive real numbers a1, ..., aN,
N a positive integer. Arithmetic mean of the given numbers is defined as
whereas their geometric mean is given by
The two quantities are always related in the following way
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(a1 + ... + aN)/N ≥ (a1· ... ·aN)1/N
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Here I am not going to prove the well known inequality but just emphasize a fact that was used by
Cauchy in his proof. Namely, if the inequality holds for all N = 2n then it holds for
all N ≥ 1. This would afford another example of a general proposition implied by its special case.

Thus, assume the inequality holds for all N = 2n and let N = 2n + m, where 0 < m < 2n and n > 0. For i = N+1, ..., 2n+1, define the "missing" a's as
Since the inequality holds for N = 2n+1 we have
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(a1 + ... + a2n+1)/2n+1 ≥ (a1· ... ·a2n+1)1/2n+1
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Substituting ai = (a1 + ... + aN)/N for i = N+1, ..., 2n+1 results in
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(a1 + ... + aN + (2n+1-N)(a1+ ... + aN))/N)/2n+1 ≥
(a1· ... ·aN)1/2n+1((a1 + ... + aN)/N)(2n+1-N)/2n+1
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Adding similar terms on the left we get
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(N+2n+1-N)(a1 + ... + aN)/(N·2n+1)=
(a1 + ... + aN)/N
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which actually says that the arithmetic mean has not been changed by addition of new terms.
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(a1 + ... + aN)/N ≥
(a1· ... ·aN)1/2n+1((a1 + ... + aN)/N)(2n+1-N)/2n+1
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Dividing by the rightmost term and with one more step to go
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((a1 + ... + aN)/N)(1-(2n+1-N)/2n+1) ≥
(a1· ... ·aN)1/2n+1
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or
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((a1 + ... + aN)/N)(N/2n+1) ≥
(a1· ... ·aN)1/2n+1
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Now raising both sides to the power of 2n+1/N we finally get
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(a1 + ... + aN)/N ≥
(a1· ... ·aN)1/N
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Q.E.D.
There is a way to derive a
complete proof of the inequality from the Pythagorean Theorem.

Copyright © 1996-2008 Alexander Bogomolny
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