Dear Mr. Bogomonly

Somewhere on Chris Caldwell's site, http://www.utm.edu/research/primes/ he discussed whether or not the number one was prime. For some reason, which escapes me, he considered it not to be prime. My problem is if this is true, the all prime would fail the Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic test.

i.e. 5 is only representable as 1*5 if every N is representable as the product of 2 primes then one must be prime.

Any comments?

Frank V Anzalone

P.S. Love your site