#2, RE: Erroneous proof (???): The real interval <0,1> as a countable set.
Posted by Gem (Guest) on Dec-05-00 at 09:36 PM
In response to message #1
>>r={x: xeR, xe} has a decimal >>representation given by: >>r= Sum(Cn 10^-n), where n = >>1 to infinity, and Cn >>= {0,1,...9}. >> >>Construct the corresponding natural number: >>m=Sum(Cn 10^(n-1)), where n = 1 >>to infinity, >>and Cn = {0,1,...9}. > >Do you know what Pi is? >Pi = 3.14159 ... > >The number has an infinite decimal >expansion. There are ways to >find any of its digits. >Divide it by 10 to >get a number in the >interval (0, 1): 0.314159 ... >What natural number corresponds to >this one according to your >construction? > >How big is it? May you >bound it by some power >of 10? I'm inclined to say the corresponding natural number is: m = ...951413 -- and, exactly like pi, there are ways to find any of its digits (EXCEPT the "first" one -- or "last" one in the case of pi). How big and how to bound it? Hmmm. Does it HAVE to be bounded in order to be a natural number? I suspect this is the essential idea I didn't take into account: the natural numbers are generated successively (or inductively) from zero. These numbers seem to be a "granddaddy" extension of the natural numbers -- uncountable and having the cardinality of the continuum. Interesting to contemplate. I think you've helped me understand an important distinction. Thanks for your help and for this wonderful site.
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